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Civil Service Exam 2024 | UPSC | IAS | TNPSC |Mock Tests

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Test No :42

Q1. Vedic philosophy as presented in the Vedas has many facets. Pick which one of the following is not true?
Q2. Which of the following refers to the portion of the revenue allotted to Zamindars for their services?
Q3. "He abolished all the taxes that are not sanctioned by the Shariat. He was the first to collect "jaziya" from non-muslims apart from land revenue. He ordered the removal of human carricatures from the paintings in his palace. His concept of development was modern." Whom are we referring to by these lines?
Q4. Buddhism holds that the welfare of the people should be promoted by all means possible by the Government. This ideal is embodied in the figure of the Chakravarti-raja or Dharmaraja, as described in.....
Q5. Pick the odd one out of the following Harappan civilisation sites....
Q6. The term "Dravidian"refers to a stratum of population who can be classified as......
Q7. Arrange the following organisations chronologically in their order of foundation? a)Tatvabodhini Sabha b)Arya Samaj c)Indian National Social Conference d)Rama Krishna Mission
Q8. "Raziya was endowed with all qualities befitting a King but was not born of the right sex". Whose quote is this?
Q9. Arrange the following social legislations in the chronological order? a)Human sacrifice practice was outlawed b)Act to declare slavery as illegal in India c)The Caste Disabilities Removal Act d)The Act that gave legal status to widow remarriage
Q10. Who was that French Physician attached to the Court of Shah Jehan and also a witness to the war of succession between Dara Shikoh and Aurangazeb?
Q11. Fourth Buddhist council witnessed the split of Buddhism into two broad sects viz:Mahayana and Hinayna.Who presided over that council?
Q12. When was the addition of third Pitaka, the Abhidhamma to the Buddhist Council text made?
Q13. Which of the following scripts was written from right to left between 300 BC to 300 AD and Ashoka's edicts in the western part were executed in it?
Q14. Find out the wrong statement from among the following?
Q15. Which of the following princely state was annexed by the British?
Q16. Among the following princely states, which one was not annexed by the British?
Q17. In which year the Pitt's India Act was passed?
Q18. Which of the following statement is correct? a)Nepal was a buffer state between India and Tibet or China b)Tibet was spared from the imperialistic designs of the British c)Bhutan maintained an independent foreign policy. d)British India and Nepal never had cordial relations
Q19. Which of the following statement is incorrect? a)The Persian Gulf was considered as strategically important by the British. b)Advancement of Russia towards Central Asia affected British interests.c)Tibet was spared from imperialistic designs d)The British foreign policy was directed towards protecting the larger interests of the British imperial.
Q20. By the turn of 1820, what were the changes that took place among the following?
Q21. Under which Article of the Constitution Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded a Special Autonomous Status?
Q22. Under which Article of the Constitution, the state governments are dismissed for constitutional or other reasons?
Q23. Which Article of the Constitution says that owning, buying, and selling of a property is only a legal right?
Q24. Amendment of the Constitution is permissible under…….of the constitution.
Q25. Under which Article of the Constitution Hindi has been designated as the Official Languages?
Q26. Who is empowered to impose emergency?
Q27. Election Commissioners are appointed under the guidance of Articles ………of the Constitution.
Q28. Which Article of the Constitution deals with matters related to Panchayats?
Q29. Status of Special State of Delhi is dealt in Article ………of the constitution.
Q30. Matters related to Union Territories are dealt in ……..Article of the Constitution.
Q31. Nomination of Lok Sabha Speaker/Deputy Speaker is governed by Article ………… of the Constitution.
Q32. Guidance for appointment of Judges for High Courts is provided in ……Article of the constitution.
Q33. Matters related to formation of State Assemblies is dealt in ………… of the Constitution.
Q34. Governors appointment and other related matters are dealt in…… of the constitution.
Q35. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Chief Justices and matters pertaining to Supreme Court?
Q36. The Financial benefits of members of both the Houses of Parliament is dealt in ………of the Constitution.
Q37. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of members of both the houses for various reasons?
Q38. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha is constituted?
Q39. Which Article of the Constitution provides for Rajya Sabha?
Q40. Which Articles of the constitution deals specifically and in detail with the formation of government?
Q41. "Meera Seth Committee" was appointed for a report on ........
Q42. ...............is also known as "Soft Loan Window" of the World Bank.
Q43. Scheduled Bank is a bank that which is .....
Q44. Which Article of our Constitution stipulates that the State shall ensure that the economic system does not promote concentration of wealth and means of production?
Q45. Reserve Bank of India does not transact the business of ......
Q46. A train of 240 mtrs long is moving at 36 Km/Hr. Calculate the time taken by the train to cross a tunnel of 110 m long?
Q47. A motorist starts his bike with the speed of 70 kmph with its speed increasing every two hours by 10 kmph. In how many hours will he cover 345 Kms?
Q48. A is twice as fast s B and B is thrice as fast as C. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in
Q49. If the salary of a worker is increased by 20% and then decreased by 10%, what is the percentage effect on his salary?
Q50. A man rides at the rate of 20 km/hr and stops for 12 minutes at the end of every 25 km. The time he takes to cover a distance of 145 Kms is .....
Q51. Which of these is NOT true?
Q52. Which of the following is antiretroviral drug?
Q53. Which of the following disease is completely eradicated?
Q54. Which of the following is involved in killing of cancer cells?
Q55. The mature thymocytes are called .......
Q56. Chicken Pox is caused by ..................
Q57. The scientist who segregated first time the germplasm from the somatoplasm in 1890 was
Q58. Which of the following is NOT a component of nutrient?
Q59. Inspiration and expiration together called as ..............
Q60. Mucin is a ..................
Q61. Children exposed to the chickenpox rash will get it in ...................
Q62. Increased number of Red blood cells is called as ..................
Q63. Blood Pressure of a healthy adult is about ........................
Q64. If one person in the house is infected with chickenpox, is it possible to stop its spreding to others by avoiding touching the infected person.
Q65. If kids come down with chickenpox, adults need not worry as it does not affect them
Q66. The condition in which raising the blood glucose level is called .................
Q67. Widening of valvular orifice is ...................
Q68. ...................blood vessel opens into the right atrium.
Q69. Tetany is caused due to .....
Q70. The anatomical basis of reflex action is the .................
Q71. Assertion (A): Red phosphorous is preferred to white phosphorous in the manufacture of matches. Reason {R}: Red phosphorous is non-poisonous in nature.
Q72. Why DDT has been banned in western countries?
Q73. Main constituents of Biogas are ....
Q74. Urea is prepared by the chemical reaction of .....
Q75. Which of the following fertilisers leaves acidic residue?
Q76. Assertion (A): Alkalies are used for washing utensils. Reason {R}: Alkalies are readily soluble in water.
Q77. Match the following Ores (in alphabets) with the metals derived from them (in numbers): (A) Argentite (B) Bauxite (C} Haematite (D) Cuprite ..... (1) Copper (2) Iron (3) Aluminium (4) Silver
Q78. Match the following products (in alphabets) and the chemicals used for their manufacture (in numbers): (A) Glass (B) Match {C} Fertiliser (D) Salt ..... (1) Phosphorus (2) Sodium Chloride (3) Sodium Silicate (4) Potassium Sulphate
Q79. Match the following ores (in alphabets) with the metals derived from them (in numbers): (A) Bauxite (B) Monazite (C} Malachite (D) Pitchblende ..... (1) Copper (2) Uranium (3) Thorium (4) Aluminium
Q80. Chlorine is ...
Q81. Which of the following is an insecticide?
Q82. The common ore of aluminium is ....
Q83. The substance generally used in the tip of safety match stick is
Q84. The process by which metal surface is coated with thin layer of zinc is called ...
Q85. Which of the following is useful in the chemistry of photography?
Q86. Gasohol is mixture of gasoline and ...
Q87. Which of the following is commonly present in the acids?
Q88. "Dry Ice" is ........
Q89. Isotopes of the same element differs in the number of
Q90. Stainless steel contains which of the following?
Q91. How much percentage of U238 present in natural uranium?
Q92. How much potential is required to produce X- rays?
Q93. How much heat is generated when current I is passing through a resistor for time t?
Q94. How much of the energy in burning coal reaches the consumer as electricity?
Q95. How much energy will 20 kg of a fuel yield on complete combustion, if the calorific value is 50 kJ/gm?
Q96. How much heat energy is produced in 10 s in an electric iron having resistance 440W when a potential of 220 V is applied?
Q97. How much energy is required for passing 1000 electrons through a 10 V source?
Q98. How much energy is released. during nuclear fusion?
Q99. How much energy is released when 17 I 33 is bomborded with a neutron?
Q100. How much energy is released per fission of 9aU235?
Q101. How many times the nuclear radius is smaller than atomic radius?
Q102. How many units of positive charge does a - rays have?
Q103. How many reactors are in operation in India’s nuclear power programme?
Q104. How many times the light ray refracts as it propagates through a triangular glass?
Q105. How many power reactors are in operation in India?
Q106. How many radioactive isotopes are produced?
Q107. How many images will be got when two plane mirrors are placed perpendicular?
Q108. How many images are formed when two plane mirrors are inclined at 50 degree to each other?
Q109. How many 100 w bulbs may be safely used on 220 V with five amperes fuse?
Q110. How many electrons present in 92U238?
Q111. Scientists are optimistic that life may exist in ....
Q112. Among the following countries which one receives the most acid rain?
Q113. Who discovered the Earth's revolution first?
Q114. National Institute of Oceanography is located at....
Q115. The atmospheric layer that is in constant contact with earth's surface is...........
Q116. Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
Q117. The shape of the earth is ......
Q118. The only satellite of Earth is..........
Q119. The planet with least mass is .......
Q120. Kiel Canal was mainly built for the purpose of ........use
Q121. Who wrote the book "Poverty - Un British Rule in India"?
Q122. Who was the first recipient of India's highest military decortion, the Param Vir Chakra?
Q123. Which Indian President was a professor of Eastern Religion and Ethics at Oxford University?
Q124. Which Governor General of India established the Fort William College in Kolkatta?
Q125. Who was the first Indian to get the Ramon Magsasay Award?
Q126. Elliot's Beach is located at.................
Q127. Which athlete holds the record of winning 18 olympic medals in all?
Q128. Who was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal?
Q129. Which Viceroy and Governor General of India took the initiative of setting up the Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary?
Q130. Which of these cities stands on the banks of river Vistula?
Q131. Which of these lakes in India was created by Le Corbusier and P L Verma, the architects ?
Q132. Who was the first recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
Q133. In which year did India win its first Olympic hockey gold medal?
Q134. Mahatma Gandhi studied Law in England at................
Q135. Who founded the city of Udaipur?
Q136. Who founded the airline that in 1946 became Air India?
Q137. Who was the first Indian national to receive Pakistan's highest civilian award, the Nishan-e-Pakistan?
Q138. "Bibendum" is the name of the mascot of which company?
Q139. Which gospel in the King James Version of the Bible contains the shortest verse "Jesus Wept"?
Q140. "War of Currents" is often personified as the rivalry between Thomas Alva Edison and which other inventor?
Q141. In Greek mythology which king was rewarded with the golden touch?
Q142. Which French City is often referred to as the"City of Popes"?
Q143. Which historical event was commemorated by the 1889 World's Fair, for which the Eiffel Tower was built?
Q144. Which Asian Country was the first to play in the soccer world cup?
Q145. Which of the following libraries is spread across three big buildings viz: James Madison Memorial Building, Thomas Jefferson Building and John Adams Building?
Q146. Which country conceived, created and donated the Hockey World Cup?
Q147. Which King had asked Vasco da Gama to find a sea route to India by sailing around Africa?
Q148. Which was Charlie Chaplin's first talking picture?
Q149. Which portfolio did Indira Gandhi hold in Lal Bahadur Shastri's Cabinet?
Q150. Who attempted to assassinate Vladimir Lenin in August 1918?
Q151. Which nawab of Oudh was a famous Kathak dancer ?
Q152. What was the name of the motel where Martin Luther King Jr was assassinated ?
Q153. What is the colour of the belly of the blue shark?
Q154. What is the name of the Indian Railways' mascot?
Q155. Consider the date series given below : 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, .......
Q156. Examine the following STATEMENTS: (1) I watch TV only if I am boFF0000. (2) I am never boFF0000 when I have my brother's company (3) Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along. Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?
Q157. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
Q158. A truck, a car and a motor cycle have equal kinetic energies. If equal stopping forces are applied and they stop after travelling a distance of X, Y and Z respectively, then
Q159. Examine the following STATEMENTS: (1) All children are inquisitive. (2) Some children are inquisitive (3) No children are inquisitive (4) Some children are not inquisitive. Among these statements, the two statements which CANNOT both be true simultaneously but can both be false would be .....
Q160. Pick out the most effective word given, and fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete: "e;The seating arrangement makes it difficult for the students to .....from each other"e;.
Q161. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ..... This report (1) / highlights on (2) / the need for (3) / further research. (4). / No error (5)
Q162. Pick out the most effective word given, and fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete: "e; I ..........your parents that I would take care of you"e;.
Q163. Give the meaning of PSYCHOGENIC
Q164. This sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct form: "e;I wondered how many discoveries went unheeded."e;
Q165. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ... The Employee was (1) / asked to leave her job (2) / as she was not (3) / performing well. (4) / No error. (5)
Q166. Read the following sentence carefully and find out whether there is/are any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No Error' the answer is (5). (ignore errors of punctuation, if any) ...In school (1) / we have to enrolled (2) / in sports (3) / and music classes. (4) / No error (5)
Q167. Give the antonym for SMOOTH
Q168. Which was the first Tamilnadu University to convey the exam results in 2015, through SMS?
Q169. In July 2015, the Tamilnadu Government signed a memorandum of understanding with ........... for establishing a big solar energy producing project in Ramanathapuram District.
Q170. ""Mudra Card"" scheme is meant for extending loans upto 10 lakhs for smally and tiny sector industries. Which bank was the first to execute this scheme officially?
Q171. "e;Nibble"e; is a ....
Q172. In programming language, .......is used to find only remainder.
Q173. VLSI was first used with the .........generation computers.
Q174. Firewall is used in PC for .....
Q175. In a Basic Program, the execution is carried out .....
Q176. The standard protocol of the internet is .......
Q177. Assembly language programs are written using
Q178. When you insert an Excel file into a Word document, the data are:
Q179. Pick the valid statement
Q180. A screen list of options in a program that tells you what is in that programme is

 

 

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