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Civil Service Exam 2024 | UPSC | IAS | TNPSC |Mock Tests

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Test No :5

Q1. Among the following, who detached the whole Deccan, including Daulatabad from the Sultan's Dominions. Never again, except briefly and insecurely for a generation after Aurangazeb's conquests, did Delhi rule the Deccan
Q2. Coins of the I BC onwards are important to the study of history because.....
Q3. Associate the following officials with the correct kingdom/king when they existed: Gopa, Sthanika, Dharmasastha, Panyadh-yaksha,Samasthaadhyaksha and Agarka
Q4. Among the following scripts which one was not used in Ashokan inscriptions?
Q5. Whose name was "Devanama Piyadassi"?
Q6. Alexander's invasion of North west India was around......
Q7. During the pre-Mauryan period states, BALI was .....
Q8. Among the following provinces during British regime, which one had the largest number of members in the Constituent Assembly?
Q9. From various evidences specially at Kalibangan, it is presumed that the Harappans used a wooden plough. The plough was believed to have been drawn by.......
Q10. Mauryan Society was divided into seven classes and it is mentioned in.........
Q11. Which of the following organisation has been termed as the "forerunner to Gandhian programmes for the Harijan"?
Q12. "Educated completely in English, strongly influenced by Bankim Chandra Chatterji's ideologies, and believed that 'Shakti or mother' represented India and it was his focus of attention for life". Relate this statement to the correct person from the following.
Q13. Among the following leaders whose effortrs was the social reform movement first put on the national map?
Q14. Which of the following crops was not introduced through the European (specially the Portuguese) efforts to introduce new crops in India?
Q15. The origin of medieval Hindu devotionalism which transformed Hinduism was from.......
Q16. When did the "mother goddess" become an object of worship again after being neglected for centuries?
Q17. Which of the following developments did not take place during the Mauryan period?
Q18. In the Interim government formed in 1946, who among the following was not a member?
Q19. Which of the following was the main cause for the Indian women getting enfranchised on the same terms as men for the first time on the basis of the Montford Reforms?
Q20. Which of the following region took active part in the Quit India movement?
Q21. In Section 159 of the IPC, the term "Affray" is used to indicate a particular offence. What is it?
Q22. Under which section of the IPC a person is charged when he prevents a public servant ( a government official like the Police, Revenue officials etc) in performing his lawful duties?
Q23. Unlawful assembly of a group of persons, in any place of disturbed area, with or without weapons, or intentions to disturb the peace, is governed by which section of the Indian Penal Code?
Q24. Acts of offence committed in private defence, a woman committing an offence, while defending herself from a molest attempt, does not constitute to be an offence under Sec……of the IPC.
Q25. Acts done in good faith and not intended to do any harm, like, a doctor performing a surgery resulting in the death of the patient, unless proved to be a mistake by the doctor, does not constitute to be an offnce under Sec…..of the IPC.
Q26. An offence committed by a person of unsound mind is not an offence under Sec……. Of the IPC.
Q27. An offence committed by a child below 7 years of age is not an offence under Sec……. Of the IPC.
Q28. Indian Penal Code is not applicable to Jammu & Kashmir. Then which code is applicable to them?
Q29. In which year the Indian Penal Code was enacted?
Q30. In an establishment where less than thousand are employed, the payment of wages should be made within….days of the expiry of the wage period, according to the Payment of Wagest Act.
Q31. The Maternity Benefit Act was enacted in the year….. .
Q32. Whenfrom the Payment of Wagest Act came into force?
Q33. When from the Trade Union Act came into force?
Q34. For how many hours a factory worker can be engaged continuously without a break?
Q35. According to the Factories Act, a person cannot be employed for more than …..hrs a day.
Q36. Who is the inspecting authority to oversee the implementation of the provisions of the Factories Act?
Q37. What is the percentage of Provident Fund to be recovered?
Q38. The Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? (1) Constitution of District Planning Committees (2) State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayats elections. (3) Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Pick the correct answer.
Q39. The Employees Provident Fund Act is not applicable to…..
Q40. Whenfrom the Employees Provident Funds (and Misc.Provisions) Act came into force?
Q41. If total utility is maximum at a point then marginal utility is ..............
Q42. Pick the wrong one in the group:
Q43. When was the last VDIS - Voluntary Disclosure of Income Scheme launched in India ...........
Q44. "Isabgol" (Psyllium Seed Husks) is an important cash crop of which state of India?
Q45. Of the following, which one is not an important characteristic of Indian Economy?
Q46. If three fourth of a number is 4:8, then what will be 500% of that number? (SBI 2001)
Q47. Amit and Abhishek started a business investing Rs.7000 and Rs.11000 respectively. If they earned a net profit of Rs.48000 then what will be the ratio of their profits? (SBI 2001)
Q48. Pick the wrong number from the given series of numbers: 9,29,54,84,120 (SBI 2001)
Q49. The ratio between gents and ladies in a colony is 9:5 respectively. If the number of gents is 40 more than the number of ladies then find the total number of gents and ladies in the colony? (SBI 2001)
Q50. Pick the wrong number from the given series of numbers: 10,14,7,11,6,9,5 (SBI 2001)
Q51. In Drosera, which of the following is used to capture insects?
Q52. Saprophytic plants obtain their nutrition from the .......
Q53. Hexose phosphate obtained in the calvin cycle used to form......
Q54. Dimorphic chloroplasts are seen in which of the following?
Q55. Chloroplast, Peroxisomes and Mitochondria involve in the respiration known as.....
Q56. From chloroplast glycolic acid diffused into the......
Q57. Removal of water molecule in reactions of glycolysis is effected by which of the following?
Q58. ...............is the most common respiratory substrate.
Q59. Demonstration of glycolysis was first made in which of the following?
Q60. ...........enzyme catalyses two steps in Kreb's cycle.
Q61. Kuhne's tube helps to demonstrate which of the following?
Q62. moval of water molecule from the substrate is known as.....
Q63. During glycolysis 2 ATP molecules are consumed in ...............phase.
Q64. Acetyl CoA combines with oxalo acetic acid to form which of the following?
Q65. Kreb's cycle is related with ..........cycle.
Q66. The electron transport components in the inner membrane of motochondria is......
Q67. Pentose phosphate pathway takes place in which of the following alone?
Q68. Which of the following causes fermentation?
Q69. Lactic acid fermentation is carried by which of the following?
Q70. Process of fermentation is mostly used in the production of which of the following?
Q71. Of the following which one has both metallic and non metallic character?
Q72. Of the following which one is more reactive towards hydrogen?
Q73. Of the following group 13 elements which one of them forms only covalent bond?
Q74. "Chalcogens" are the elements that belong to the ....... family.
Q75. To which group number the halogens belong?
Q76. Among the properties of Silicone, which one is not correct?
Q77. Of the following elements which one is kept in water?
Q78. With which of the following oxygen exhibits positive exidation state?
Q79. The weakest acid from among the following halogen acids is…..
Q80. From the following given an example of amphibole?
Q81. Of the following, which one is a three dimensional silicate?
Q82. Of the following which one does not exhibit allotropy?
Q83. Pick the one that does not belong to group 13.
Q84. The bond O-H in water molecule is termed as ....
Q85. Which of the following bonds, is more ionic in nature?
Q86. According to Pauling's scale, the electronegativity of Chlorine is......
Q87. Electron affinities for Be and N are found to be…..
Q88. Why Magnesium has higher LE than sodium?
Q89. Across the period the electronegativity……..
Q90. Of the following which one has zeron electron affinity?
Q91. Of the following which one has the greatest electron affinity?
Q92. Of the following,l which one has the highest electron affinity value?
Q93. The electron affinity value is dependent on which of the following?
Q94. Why the noble gases exist as single atoms?
Q95. Of the following elements which one has the lowest ionisation energy?
Q96. Of the following elements which one has the highest ionisation potential?
Q97. The statement that is not true regarding ionisation energy is........
Q98. The factor that does not influence the ionisation energy of elements is…..
Q99. Slater rules are used for calculating which of the following?
Q100. The ionic radius is inversely proportional to which of the following?
Q101. When we move down the group in the periodic table, the atomic radius .....
Q102. Of the following which one has the maximum atomic radius?
Q103. Of the following which one has the lowest ionisation potential?
Q104. Of the following which one is also known as "periodic property"?
Q105. The value of electron affinity for inert gases is likely to be………
Q106. Atom's ionisation potential is related to which of the following?
Q107. What is the position of "Cation" in the case of alkali metals?
Q108. What happens when an anion is formed from a neutral atom?
Q109. What is the electron affinity of Noble Gases?
Q110. Pick the one that has higher electron affinity value?
Q111. What is the unit of stress?
Q112. What is the unit of stress?
Q113. What is the unit of refractive index.
Q114. What is the unit of G (gravitational constant)?
Q115. What is the unit of mechanical force?
Q116. What is the unit of electric current?
Q117. What is the unit of force?
Q118. What is the unit of coefficient
Q119. What is the unit of coefficient of viscosity?
Q120. What is the unit of angular displacement?
Q121. What is the turns ratio in a step-up transformer?
Q122. What is the unit of Activity?
Q123. What is the total power generation capacity of India?
Q124. What is the time period of communication satellite?
Q125. What is the thickness of the concrete wall used in a nuclear reactor?
Q126. What is the temperature needed to operate ocean thermal conservation plant?
Q127. What is the speed of light in a glass when the light enters from air to glass (M = 1.5)
Q128. What is the size of the image formed by concave lens?
Q129. What is the size of the image formed by an object placed at the focus of a convex lens?
Q130. What is the simplest way of maintaining a potential difference between the two ends of a conductor?
Q131. Radcliffe Line separates .......... and ......... .
Q132. ASSERTION {A}: Eclipses do not occur on all full moon and new moon days. REASON {R}: The moon revolves round the earth in an elliptical orbit.
Q133. MacMohan Line separates ........ and ............ .
Q134. The boundary between Germany and Poland is called as ..............
Q135. Durand Line separates .............and .............. .
Q136. New Moore Island ( 2010.. disappeared due to global warming and submerged) was an issue between which two countries?
Q137. The Ozone layer lies in which of the following atmospheric spheres/pause ?
Q138. Important rivers of Australia are ............and .............
Q139. Identify the correct order of the processes of soil erosion from the following:
Q140. ..............the suitable region for soft wood forests.
Q141. The "Antarctic Treaty" relating to international stand on Antarctica signed in the 1959 came into force in the year ......
Q142. India and Pakistan signed "Simla Agreement" in the year.....
Q143. Maastricht Treaty 1992 is associated with......
Q144. Associate the following features with the Montreal Protocol 1989.
Q145. Pick the wrongly matched one from among the following.
Q146. Which is the largest Peninsula in the world?
Q147. In which year the "Nuclear Proliferation Treaty" came into force?
Q148. The "Puerto Rico Trench" is located in the........
Q149. "Death Valley" is the lowest point of.......
Q150. The smallest continent of the earth is....
Q151. Australasia or Oceania comprises of which of the following? a)Australia b)New Zealand c)Pacific Islands d)New Guinea e)Tasmania
Q152. The Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at.....
Q153. How many High Courts are there now in India?
Q154. The Kerala High Court is located at......
Q155. In which year Mumbai High Court was established?
Q156. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh are judicially governed by.....
Q157. "Synagogue" is the worshipping place of....
Q158. "Shintoism" is a religious belief present in......
Q159. Islam was founded during the
Q160. Which of the following is the onlycountry in the world with Hinduism as its state religion?
Q161. "Peking" (now Beijing) is the sacred place which belief?
Q162. The "Urjagram" programme was initiated during
Q163. "Analects" is the sacred book of which religious belief?
Q164. Pick the correct one from the following.
Q165. Buddhism was founded during which period?
Q166. The UN declared 1999 as the year of .......
Q167. In which year the Group of 7 (G7) was formed?
Q168. Commonwealth of Independent States comprises of ........ Members.
Q169. One of the following is not a 'sitar' player. Who is that?
Q170. Which one of the following does not belong to the Carnatic music form?
Q171. Where is the National Institute of Nutrition located?
Q172. During whose rule the Mughal Painting art reached its climax?
Q173. Who among the following wrote "Mein Kampf"?
Q174. Where was the first Asian Games held?
Q175. Two is subtracted from the middle digit of each of the following numbers and the positions of the remaining two digits are interchanged. Then, which of the following would be the last but one number if the numbers are arranged in descending order? 225 135 592 367 674
Q176. Exactly five colouFF0000 lights - Green, Yellow, FF0000, White and Blue -- are arranged in a straight line on a control panel, evenly spaced, going from left to right in the order given above. On the control panel, there can be two types of patterns of lights that are called X sequence and Y sequence. An X sequence of lights is a sequence of either three or four lights that are on and evenly spaced with respect to one another. A Y sequence of lights is is any sequence of lights that are not an X sequence. Based on this information, answer the following QUESTION: Which of the following X sequences of lights must remain a X sequence, if an additional light is turned on?
Q177. Pravin walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres, again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting point?
Q178. If Anju is taller than Rohini but shorther than Manju and Rohini is as tall as Sarayu but taller than Shubhangi then Sarayu is ...........
Q179. How many such 5s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 3 or 4 but not immediately followed by 8 or 9? 3 5 9 5 4 5 5 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 3 5 7 5 5 4 5 2 3 5 1 0
Q180. That the poor in our country, are happy is ......
Q181. This sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct form: ;Govind, said the manager sternly, I command you to tell me what the old man said."
Q182. Choose the word similar in meaning to the word: LICENTIOUS
Q183. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete: I do not know where Neha lives because we have been ......... of touch for quite some time.
Q184. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the options suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice: He hasn't slept in his bed.
Q185. ............tense refers to actions that happen regularly.
Q186. Read the sentence carefully and find out whether there is any grammatical/idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one numbered part of the sentence. The numbered part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) .. Since she has (1) / been hospitalized (2) / we must wait till (3) / she is recovering. (4) / No error. (5).
Q187. Pick an alternative for the idiom/phrase: "Dark Horse"
Q188. IRV 2020 is a wild life protection scheme launched by Government of India. It relates to the protection of .........
Q189. The Nuclear Exports Committee is headed by .............
Q190. In 2016, the World Future Energy meet was held in ..........
Q191. The correct shortcut key to bring the text in the center is
Q192. Which of these e-commerce systems can handle non-monetary documents?
Q193. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an.....
Q194. Which menu in MS Word can be used to change page size and typeface?
Q195. When you are working on a document on a PC,where is the document stored temporarily?
Q196. Professional Edition includes
Q197. A keyboard can be dispensed with by using which of the following devices?
Q198. A button that makes character either upper or lower case and numbers to symbols is
Q199. The full form of ODBC is ......
Q200. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention?

 

 

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