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Civil Service Exam 2024 | UPSC | IAS | TNPSC |Mock Tests

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Test No :8

Q1. British appointed the Hunter Commission to probe into......
Q2. What was the main reason for the partition of Bengal?
Q3. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:(a)Permanent Settlement (b)doctrine of lapse (c)partition of Bengal (d)subsidiary alliance
Q4. Among the following who gave the maximum resistance to the British?
Q5. Which of the following is not directly related with the growth of cave art?
Q6. For what reason the 'Din ilahi' of Akbar met with failure?
Q7. Mark the unrelated feature of the Mauryan Dynasty? (A)wide spread education (b)largest empire of its time (c)use of gold, silver and copper coins (d)provincial administration
Q8. In which year the Quit India Movement was organised?
Q9. Mark the Kushan dynasty ruler from the following? Ugrasena vikramaaditya pushyamitra kadphises I
Q10. Who introduced the Indian Civil Service?
Q11. Which of the following gave the permission for the Britishers to establish their company in India?
Q12. What was "Mansabdari" during the Mughal period?
Q13. What was the main motive of Ghazni Mohammad's frequent attack on India?
Q14. What was the aim of the Red Shirt movement?
Q15. The earnings of medieval period kings was mostly from....
Q16. Arrange the following rulers of Delhi in the chronological order: (a) Razia (b)Balban (c)Iltumish (d)Nasiruddin
Q17. Accession to the Sultan period throne was generally through .......
Q18. Civil Disobedience movement followed which of the following events?
Q19. Which political party was in power in United Kingdom when India became independent?
Q20. Which factor contributed most to the success of the British against other European traders in India?
Q21. Immediately after reorganization of states in 1956, how many states and UT s were there?
Q22. What was the name of the Commission appointed for reorganization of states after independence?
Q23. Who was the ruler of Kashmir at the time of independence and annexation?
Q24. Of the various princely states, which one was refusing to join the Indian domain and was acquired by military force?
Q25. Who among the following is known as "Amarajeevi"(immortal being)?
Q26. Who was instrumental in reorganizing the states on linguistic basis?
Q27. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: (1) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President (2) He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of House within six months from the date of his/her election. (3) If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q28. How many British Provinces were there at the time of independence?
Q29. Approximately how many Princely States were there at the time of reorganization of states after independence?
Q30. Who was the First Labour Minister of India?
Q31. Atomic Energy Commission was established in the year……
Q32. When was the Department of Bio-technology established
Q33. Atomic Energy Commission is under the direct control of …….
Q34. Who was the first Science & Technology Minister of India?
Q35. When was the Unique Identification Authority of India established?
Q36. What is the monthly magazine published by the National Commission for Women?
Q37. National Commission for women was set up under an Act enacted in..
Q38. According to the Sachar Committee report on SC/STS of 2006, which religion has the most number of SCs?
Q39. National Commission for Minorities was established by an Act in the year …..
Q40. National Commission for SC/STs was set up under the provisions of ……
Q41. _____________ is not a cause of low productivity in Indian agriculture.
Q42. During whose rule "Rupee" was minted in India?
Q43. Tooth paste is a product sold under...........
Q44. "Inflation" implies ________________
Q45. In Capitalism, the price of a commodity is determined by the ______________
Q46. The height of the flower above the water level of a tank is 2 metres. It is pulled aside and comes to 8 metres from its original position and the top of the flower touches the water. Find the depth of the tank.
Q47. Fill in the question mark: ? - 634.89 = 7845.675 (SBI 2001)
Q48. The average age of Vijay, Sanjay and Pappu is 45 years. If the ratio of their ages is respectively 3:4:2, then find the age of Sanjay? (SBI 2001)
Q49. If 25% of 13/12 of a certain number is 520, then what is 60% of that number?
Q50. Amit sold an article for Rs.630 and earned a profit of 20%. Find the cost price for Amit? (SBI 2001)
Q51. In which of the following vedas, medicial properties of plants are mentioned?
Q52. The term for obtaining medicinally valuable compounds from plants is ".........."
Q53. Morphine, a medicinal anaesthetic is obtained from which of the following seeds?
Q54. Quinine, a medicine for Malarial diseases, is obtained from which of the following?
Q55. Aegle mormelos is used for the treatment of which of the following ailments?
Q56. Cissus quadrangularis belongs to which of the following families?
Q57. Mimosa pudica belongs to which of the following families?
Q58. Mimosa is used for the cure of piles, wounds and ........
Q59. the alkaloid extracted from Mimosa.
Q60. Solanum nigrum is generally known as........
Q61. Solanum nigrum herb is used in the treatment of ..................ailments.
Q62. From which of the following Penicillin is extracted?
Q63. From which of the following Streptomycin is obtained?
Q64. From which of the following Aureomycin is extracted?
Q65. From which of the following Bacitracin is obtained?
Q66. Of the following, what is prepared by the fermentation of rice?
Q67. Arachis hypogea is the binomial name of which of the following?
Q68. Fatty acid derived from cotton is used in the production of which of the following?
Q69. The binomial name of teak wood is.......
Q70. Sap wood of teak is ......
Q71. Of the following which one explodes upon heating?
Q72. In which form the plants absorb nitrogen?
Q73. Mark the gaseous element from among the following?
Q74. In which of the following the atomic volume is the high during any period?
Q75. Among the following which one is least metallic?
Q76. Which is the non metal among the following?
Q77. Who among the following named the "Electrons"?
Q78. Which is the orbit nearest to the nucleus of an atom?
Q79. Of the following which one is used for making transparent containers?
Q80. What does "Petroleum" mean?
Q81. What is the content of a true solution?
Q82. How do we call a chemical substance that gets dissociated into ions in a solution?
Q83. Silver nitrate reacts with chloride salt to form .... Percipitate.
Q84. Of the following, which one is the most important source of helium?
Q85. Benzene is a .....
Q86. The temperature of a substance denotes ..... energy of its particles.
Q87. Metalloids are otherwise known as ....
Q88. Atomic radii of the elements increase from ...
Q89. How many electrons is/are present in the valence shell of an alkali metal?
Q90. Electron affinity of halogens is ...
Q91. Excess of what in the atmosphere causes the "Green house effect"?
Q92. A chemical change occurs in which of the following occurrences?
Q93. A physical change occurs in which of the following occurrences?
Q94. What is the term for the process of converting solid into a vapour directly without passing through the liquid state?
Q95. Which of the following alloy is used in making clocks and watches?
Q96. Bases turn phenolphthalein from colourless to which of the following colours?
Q97. What is the boiling point of water?
Q98. In the electro refining process, the pure metal gets deposited over the ....
Q99. What is the electrolyte used in copper plating?
Q100. Of the following gases, which one is a mixture of Carbon monoxide and hydrogen in 1:1 ratio?
Q101. Which of the following complex salt is known as "Calgon"?
Q102. Sodium Aluminium Silicate is also known as ....
Q103. What is the yield when steam is passed over red hot coke in the presence of chromium oxide?
Q104. A binary compound of oxygen with another element is called an/a
Q105. What does "Oxygen" mean?
Q106. Presence of which of the following in the atmosphere reduces the activity of oxygen?
Q107. Hydrogen burns in air with a .......
Q108. Who gave Hydrogen the name "Water Producer"?
Q109. The adulterant in edible oil that causes cardiac arrest is.......
Q110. Electrode connected to the negative terminal of a battery is known as.........
Q111. What is the momentum of a photon of wavelength 5000 Å?
Q112. What is the minimum distance required for producing echo?
Q113. What is the maximum value of frequency of FM band ?
Q114. What is the maximum power of accommodation of an eye for a person with normal vision
Q115. What is the mathematical form of magnification for a spherical mirror?
Q116. What is the mass of an object having the volume of 50 m3 and density of 10 kgm3?
Q117. What is the mass of an electron?
Q118. What is the mass of a neutron?
Q119. What is the mass number of an element contaiing 20 neutrons and its atomic number is 12?
Q120. What is the main disadvantage of solar cells?
Q121. What is the main difference between AC and DC generator?
Q122. What is the main cause of acid rain?
Q123. What is the magnitude of the positive charge of the nucleus?
Q124. What is the magnitude of charge of a proton?
Q125. What is the magnitude of the force, when a current conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field?
Q126. What is the magnetic flux linked with a coil of area 0.7cm2 placed at right angle to the magnetic field of induction 0.2 tesla?
Q127. What is the magnetic flux linked with a coil of area 0.7 cm2 placed at right angle to a magnetic field of induction 2 tesla?
Q128. What is the initial velocity when an object is dropped from certain height?
Q129. What is the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil . of radius r through which a current I flows?
Q130. What is the inertia of football and stone of same size?
Q131. ASSERTION {A}: The same side of the moon is always seen from the earth. REASON {R}: The moon rotates on its axis once in each orbital revolution.
Q132. Global warming results in changes of ......
Q133. Porous water bearing layers of sand, gravel and rock are known as..
Q134. At the time of the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere the length of the day will be 12 hours at the ........
Q135. Consider the following statements: (1) Richter scale is a logarthmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times in amplitude. (2) Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that of the previous integer reading. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q136. The India Pakistan boundary line is known by the name....
Q137. the highest peak of the Nanga Parbat Range.
Q138. Largest gulf in the world is .........
Q139. ASSERTION {A} : Anticyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmosphere pressure is high and air temperatures are low. REASON {R} : Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.
Q140. The Sun derives its energy from
Q141. National Institute of Virology is located in ......
Q142. Central Food Technological Research Institute is located in .....
Q143. National Aids Control Organization is located in .....
Q144. All India Institute of Speech and Hearing is located at.....
Q145. Centre for DNA finger printing and Diagnostics is located in .....
Q146. National Tuberculosis Institute is located in ....
Q147. Central Leprosy Teaching & Research Institute is located in.....
Q148. All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health is located in....
Q149. National Institute of Communicable Diseases is located in .....
Q150. Food Research and Standardization Laboratory is located in .....
Q151. Central Institute of Psychiatry is located in.......
Q152. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation is headquartered at......
Q153. Institute of Serology is located at .....
Q154. Steel Authority of India Ltd., is the controlling authority for steel production in public sector in India. When was it founded?
Q155. Where was the first Public Sector Steel plant started in India?
Q156. In which year India conducted its first nuclear test?
Q157. What was the first public sector undertaking established in India?
Q158. India conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran. It belongs to which state?
Q159. Chernobyl was with USSR at the time of the major disaster in 1986. It is now in which country?
Q160. Chernobyl nuclear disaster was the major one in terms of devastation. It occurred in which year?
Q161. In which year was India's first Atomic Reactor commissioned?
Q162. The religion of early Vedic Aryas was primarily of
Q163. What was India's first Atomic Reactor?
Q164. Who is considered as the father of Indian Nuclear Atomic Energy Programme?
Q165. Where is the "Master Control Facility" for all post launch operations of INSAT satellites?
Q166. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is in ......
Q167. Which University of India was the first to launch its own educational satellite?
Q168. For his space flight achievement, Rakesh Sharma was honoured with.....
Q169. While in space, Rakesh Sharma spoke with which Indian Prime Minister?
Q170. Rakesh Sharma is the first Indian to go into space. In which year?
Q171. What was India's first indigenously developed and launched satellite?
Q172. Launching of which satellite revolutionised the television and telecommunication network of our country?
Q173. In which year India launched its first satellite?
Q174. Indian Space Research Organization is headquartered at................
Q175. In the following number series only one number of wrong. Find out the wrong number: 29 13 25 40 57 79 103 130
Q176. In the following number series only one number of wrong. Find out the wrong number: 850, 600, 550, 500, 475, 462.5, 456.25
Q177. In the question below, there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbeFF0000 1, 2 and 3. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement. STATEMENTS: Some pens are table. All tables are inks. Some inks are apples. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some apples are pens. (2) Some apples are tables. (3) Some inks are pen.
Q178. In the question below is given four statements, followed by four conclusions numbeFF0000 (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. STATEMENTS: All Chairs are sofas. All sofas are books. All books are nets. All nets are gardens. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some nets are sofas. (2) Some gardens are books. (3) Some nets are chairs. (4) All books are gardens.
Q179. Study the following information carefully and answer the given question. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. D is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of B. F is fourth to the right of B. C fourth to the right of E who is not an immediate neighbour of B or D. A is not an immediate neighbour of D. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
Q180. Fill the blanks with appropriate pair of words given: "e; Anthony got ..........the bus, but there was no seat vacant ........him."e;
Q181. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5): (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any): The actress made a rare appearance (1) / at the party and was (2) / overheard talking in (3) / her next big project. (4) / No error. (5).
Q182. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word: DETERRENT
Q183. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete: No matter where that prisoner tries to .......... the police will find him sooner or later.
Q184. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (4). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) It was me who was (1) / responsible for (2) / making all the arrangements for the successful completion of his studies. (3) / No error. (4).
Q185. Replace the highlighted part of the sentence appropriately from the options given: Looked over from that point of view his decision is easier to understand.
Q186. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word: CONCEITED
Q187. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (4). There is a Bach's violin concerto (1) / on the radio (2) / at 6 p.m. this evening. (3) / No error. (4)
Q188. According to the 2016 report of UNIDO -- United Nations Industrial Development Organization --, where is India placed in Industrial production?
Q189. In 2016, the World Bank released a report on ""World Economic Development & Future"" and a list of developing countries. According to the report, which country's economy is on the fast track of development?
Q190. As of 2016, which country has the highest investment -- FDI -- in India?
Q191. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the .... can transmit data.
Q192. Help Menu is available at which button?
Q193. GCA stands for ...
Q194. Gopher .....
Q195. the most reliable and robust amongst the following though does not have high processing power.
Q196. Pick the correct COBOL reserved words.
Q197. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a ....
Q198. ......controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a me ......... which users can interact with the computer
Q199. options b and c should be done at the command prompt with argument (i.e. file name)
Q200. The following statements may be arranged in the sequential order: To create a new document in MS word, the steps must be.... 1.Select New 2.In the General tab, Select Blank Document 3.Click on OK 4.Click on the File Menu in the Standard Menu Bar 5.Start typing the data or text 6.After typing the text, click on File Menu and select Save 7.Provide a file name to save the new document and click OK



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