Unfortunately, Mr. M. Subramanian, who maintained this website lost his battle to cancer and passed away in July, 2019. The database has over 50,000 questions. If you are interested in purchasing the website/database, please reach out using the form here.
Q1. British appointed the Hunter Commission to probe into......
Correct answer : 2
Q2. What was the main reason for the partition of Bengal?
Correct answer : 2
Q3. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:(a)Permanent Settlement (b)doctrine of lapse (c)partition of Bengal (d)subsidiary alliance
Correct answer : 2
Q4. Among the following who gave the maximum resistance to the British?
Correct answer : 2
Q5. Which of the following is not directly related with the growth of cave art?
Correct answer : 3
Q6. For what reason the 'Din ilahi' of Akbar met with failure?
Correct answer : 2
Q7. Mark the unrelated feature of the Mauryan Dynasty? (A)wide spread education (b)largest empire of its time (c)use of gold, silver and copper coins (d)provincial administration
Correct answer : 4
Q8. In which year the Quit India Movement was organised?
Correct answer : 3
Q9. Mark the Kushan dynasty ruler from the following? Ugrasena vikramaaditya pushyamitra kadphises I
Correct answer : 4
Q10. Who introduced the Indian Civil Service?
Correct answer : 3
Q11. Which of the following gave the permission for the Britishers to establish their company in India?
Correct answer : 3
Q12. What was "Mansabdari" during the Mughal period?
Correct answer : 3
Q13. What was the main motive of Ghazni Mohammad's frequent attack on India?
Correct answer : 2
Q14. What was the aim of the Red Shirt movement?
Correct answer : 2
Q15. The earnings of medieval period kings was mostly from....
Correct answer : 3
Q16. Arrange the following rulers of Delhi in the chronological order: (a) Razia (b)Balban (c)Iltumish (d)Nasiruddin
Correct answer : 4
Q17. Accession to the Sultan period throne was generally through .......
Correct answer : 1
Q18. Civil Disobedience movement followed which of the following events?
Correct answer : 1
Q19. Which political party was in power in United Kingdom when India became independent?
Correct answer : 3
Q20. Which factor contributed most to the success of the British against other European traders in India?
Correct answer : 4
Q21. Immediately after reorganization of states in 1956, how many states and UT s were there?
Correct answer : 4
Q22. What was the name of the Commission appointed for reorganization of states after independence?
Correct answer : 3
Q23. Who was the ruler of Kashmir at the time of independence and annexation?
Correct answer : 2
Q24. Of the various princely states, which one was refusing to join the Indian domain and was acquired by military force?
Correct answer : 1
Q25. Who among the following is known as "Amarajeevi"(immortal being)?
Correct answer : 2
Q26. Who was instrumental in reorganizing the states on linguistic basis?
Correct answer : 1
Q27. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: (1) He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President (2) He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of House within six months from the date of his/her election. (3) If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer : 2
Q28. How many British Provinces were there at the time of independence?
Correct answer : 4
Q29. Approximately how many Princely States were there at the time of reorganization of states after independence?
Correct answer : 3
Q30. Who was the First Labour Minister of India?
Correct answer : 2
Q31. Atomic Energy Commission was established in the year……
Correct answer : 3
Q32. When was the Department of Bio-technology established
Correct answer : 4
Q33. Atomic Energy Commission is under the direct control of …….
Correct answer : 2
Q34. Who was the first Science & Technology Minister of India?
Correct answer : 2
Q35. When was the Unique Identification Authority of India established?
Correct answer : 2
Q36. What is the monthly magazine published by the National Commission for Women?
Correct answer : 3
Q37. National Commission for women was set up under an Act enacted in..
Correct answer : 2
Q38. According to the Sachar Committee report on SC/STS of 2006, which religion has the most number of SCs?
Correct answer : 2
Q39. National Commission for Minorities was established by an Act in the year …..
Correct answer : 2
Q40. National Commission for SC/STs was set up under the provisions of ……
Correct answer : 3
Q41. _____________ is not a cause of low productivity in Indian agriculture.
Correct answer : 4
Q42. During whose rule "Rupee" was minted in India?
Correct answer : 2
Q43. Tooth paste is a product sold under...........
Correct answer : 4
Q44. "Inflation" implies ________________
Correct answer : 4
Q45. In Capitalism, the price of a commodity is determined by the ______________
Correct answer : 2
Q46. The height of the flower above the water level of a tank is 2 metres. It is pulled aside and comes to 8 metres from its original position and the top of the flower touches the water. Find the depth of the tank.
Correct answer : 1
Q47. Fill in the question mark: ? - 634.89 = 7845.675 (SBI 2001)
Correct answer : 4
Q48. The average age of Vijay, Sanjay and Pappu is 45 years. If the ratio of their ages is respectively 3:4:2, then find the age of Sanjay? (SBI 2001)
Correct answer : 2
Q49. If 25% of 13/12 of a certain number is 520, then what is 60% of that number?
Correct answer : 2
Q50. Amit sold an article for Rs.630 and earned a profit of 20%. Find the cost price for Amit? (SBI 2001)
Correct answer : 4
Q51. In which of the following vedas, medicial properties of plants are mentioned?
Correct answer : 1
Q52. The term for obtaining medicinally valuable compounds from plants is ".........."
Correct answer : 2
Q53. Morphine, a medicinal anaesthetic is obtained from which of the following seeds?
Correct answer : 2
Q54. Quinine, a medicine for Malarial diseases, is obtained from which of the following?
Correct answer : 3
Q55. Aegle mormelos is used for the treatment of which of the following ailments?
Correct answer : 4
Q56. Cissus quadrangularis belongs to which of the following families?
Correct answer : 3
Q57. Mimosa pudica belongs to which of the following families?
Correct answer : 2
Q58. Mimosa is used for the cure of piles, wounds and ........
Correct answer : 2
Q59. ................is the alkaloid extracted from Mimosa.
Correct answer : 3
Q60. Solanum nigrum is generally known as........
Correct answer : 1
Q61. Solanum nigrum herb is used in the treatment of ..................ailments.
Correct answer : 2
Q62. From which of the following Penicillin is extracted?
Correct answer : 2
Q63. From which of the following Streptomycin is obtained?
Correct answer : 4
Q64. From which of the following Aureomycin is extracted?
Correct answer : 4
Q65. From which of the following Bacitracin is obtained?
Correct answer : 1
Q66. Of the following, what is prepared by the fermentation of rice?
Correct answer : 3
Q67. Arachis hypogea is the binomial name of which of the following?
Correct answer : 1
Q68. Fatty acid derived from cotton is used in the production of which of the following?
Correct answer : 2
Q69. The binomial name of teak wood is.......
Correct answer : 2
Q70. Sap wood of teak is ......
Correct answer : 4
Q71. Of the following which one explodes upon heating?
Correct answer : 1
Q72. In which form the plants absorb nitrogen?
Correct answer : 4
Q73. Mark the gaseous element from among the following?
Correct answer : 2
Q74. In which of the following the atomic volume is the high during any period?
Correct answer : 3
Q75. Among the following which one is least metallic?
Correct answer : 1
Q76. Which is the non metal among the following?
Correct answer : 3
Q77. Who among the following named the "Electrons"?
Correct answer : 2
Q78. Which is the orbit nearest to the nucleus of an atom?
Correct answer : 3
Q79. Of the following which one is used for making transparent containers?
Correct answer : 4
Q80. What does "Petroleum" mean?
Correct answer : 1
Q81. What is the content of a true solution?
Correct answer : 1
Q82. How do we call a chemical substance that gets dissociated into ions in a solution?
Correct answer : 3
Q83. Silver nitrate reacts with chloride salt to form .... Percipitate.
Correct answer : 4
Q84. Of the following, which one is the most important source of helium?
Correct answer : 2
Q85. Benzene is a .....
Correct answer : 4
Q86. The temperature of a substance denotes ..... energy of its particles.
Correct answer : 4
Q87. Metalloids are otherwise known as ....
Correct answer : 2
Q88. Atomic radii of the elements increase from ...
Correct answer : 3
Q89. How many electrons is/are present in the valence shell of an alkali metal?
Correct answer : 1
Q90. Electron affinity of halogens is ...
Correct answer : 3
Q91. Excess of what in the atmosphere causes the "Green house effect"?
Correct answer : 1
Q92. A chemical change occurs in which of the following occurrences?
Correct answer : 2
Q93. A physical change occurs in which of the following occurrences?
Correct answer : 1
Q94. What is the term for the process of converting solid into a vapour directly without passing through the liquid state?
Correct answer : 2
Q95. Which of the following alloy is used in making clocks and watches?
Correct answer : 3
Q96. Bases turn phenolphthalein from colourless to which of the following colours?
Correct answer : 2
Q97. What is the boiling point of water?
Correct answer : 4
Q98. In the electro refining process, the pure metal gets deposited over the ....
Correct answer : 2
Q99. What is the electrolyte used in copper plating?
Correct answer : 1
Q100. Of the following gases, which one is a mixture of Carbon monoxide and hydrogen in 1:1 ratio?
Correct answer : 2
Q101. Which of the following complex salt is known as "Calgon"?
Correct answer : 3
Q102. Sodium Aluminium Silicate is also known as ....
Correct answer : 2
Q103. What is the yield when steam is passed over red hot coke in the presence of chromium oxide?
Correct answer : 4
Q104. A binary compound of oxygen with another element is called an/a
Correct answer : 1
Q105. What does "Oxygen" mean?
Correct answer : 2
Q106. Presence of which of the following in the atmosphere reduces the activity of oxygen?
Correct answer : 2
Q107. Hydrogen burns in air with a .......
Correct answer : 3
Q108. Who gave Hydrogen the name "Water Producer"?
Correct answer : 3
Q109. The adulterant in edible oil that causes cardiac arrest is.......
Correct answer : 1
Q110. Electrode connected to the negative terminal of a battery is known as.........
Correct answer : 4
Q111. What is the momentum of a photon of wavelength 5000 Å?
Correct answer : 1
Q112. What is the minimum distance required for producing echo?
Correct answer : 3
Q113. What is the maximum value of frequency of FM band ?
Correct answer : 1
Q114. What is the maximum power of accommodation of an eye for a person with normal vision
Correct answer : 3
Q115. What is the mathematical form of magnification for a spherical mirror?
Correct answer : 2
Q116. What is the mass of an object having the volume of 50 m3 and density of 10 kgm3?
Correct answer : 2
Q117. What is the mass of an electron?
Correct answer : 2
Q118. What is the mass of a neutron?
Correct answer : 4
Q119. What is the mass number of an element contaiing 20 neutrons and its atomic number is 12?
Correct answer : 3
Q120. What is the main disadvantage of solar cells?
Correct answer : 2
Q121. What is the main difference between AC and DC generator?
Correct answer : 4
Q122. What is the main cause of acid rain?
Correct answer : 3
Q123. What is the magnitude of the positive charge of the nucleus?
Correct answer : 4
Q124. What is the magnitude of charge of a proton?
Correct answer : 3
Q125. What is the magnitude of the force, when a current conductor is placed perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field?
Correct answer : 1
Q126. What is the magnetic flux linked with a coil of area 0.7cm2 placed at right angle to the magnetic field of induction 0.2 tesla?
Correct answer : 3
Q127. What is the magnetic flux linked with a coil of area 0.7 cm2 placed at right angle to a magnetic field of induction 2 tesla?
Correct answer : 1
Q128. What is the initial velocity when an object is dropped from certain height?
Correct answer : 4
Q129. What is the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil . of radius r through which a current I flows?
Correct answer : 4
Q130. What is the inertia of football and stone of same size?
Correct answer : 3
Q131. ASSERTION {A}: The same side of the moon is always seen from the earth. REASON {R}: The moon rotates on its axis once in each orbital revolution.
Correct answer : 1
Q132. Global warming results in changes of ......
Correct answer : 4
Q133. Porous water bearing layers of sand, gravel and rock are known as..
Correct answer : 4
Q134. At the time of the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere the length of the day will be 12 hours at the ........
Correct answer : 2
Q135. Consider the following statements: (1) Richter scale is a logarthmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times in amplitude. (2) Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that of the previous integer reading. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer : 3
Q136. The India Pakistan boundary line is known by the name....
Correct answer : 2
Q137. ........is the highest peak of the Nanga Parbat Range.
Correct answer : 2
Q138. Largest gulf in the world is .........
Correct answer : 3
Q139. ASSERTION {A} : Anticyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmosphere pressure is high and air temperatures are low. REASON {R} : Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic conditions with low temperatures.
Correct answer : 3
Q140. The Sun derives its energy from
Correct answer : 2
Q141. National Institute of Virology is located in ......
Correct answer : 3
Q142. Central Food Technological Research Institute is located in .....
Correct answer : 1
Q143. National Aids Control Organization is located in .....
Correct answer : 1
Q144. All India Institute of Speech and Hearing is located at.....
Correct answer : 3
Q145. Centre for DNA finger printing and Diagnostics is located in .....
Correct answer : 1
Q146. National Tuberculosis Institute is located in ....
Correct answer : 3
Q147. Central Leprosy Teaching & Research Institute is located in.....
Correct answer : 2
Q148. All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health is located in....
Correct answer : 1
Q149. National Institute of Communicable Diseases is located in .....
Correct answer : 2
Q150. Food Research and Standardization Laboratory is located in .....
Correct answer : 1
Q151. Central Institute of Psychiatry is located in.......
Correct answer : 2
Q152. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation is headquartered at......
Correct answer : 3
Q153. Institute of Serology is located at .....
Correct answer : 4
Q154. Steel Authority of India Ltd., is the controlling authority for steel production in public sector in India. When was it founded?
Correct answer : 3
Q155. Where was the first Public Sector Steel plant started in India?
Correct answer : 2
Q156. In which year India conducted its first nuclear test?
Correct answer : 2
Q157. What was the first public sector undertaking established in India?
Correct answer : 3
Q158. India conducted its first nuclear test at Pokhran. It belongs to which state?
Correct answer : 4
Q159. Chernobyl was with USSR at the time of the major disaster in 1986. It is now in which country?
Correct answer : 3
Q160. Chernobyl nuclear disaster was the major one in terms of devastation. It occurred in which year?
Correct answer : 2
Q161. In which year was India's first Atomic Reactor commissioned?
Correct answer : 2
Q162. The religion of early Vedic Aryas was primarily of
Correct answer : 3
Q163. What was India's first Atomic Reactor?
Correct answer : 2
Q164. Who is considered as the father of Indian Nuclear Atomic Energy Programme?
Correct answer : 1
Q165. Where is the "Master Control Facility" for all post launch operations of INSAT satellites?
Correct answer : 1
Q166. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is in ......
Correct answer : 3
Q167. Which University of India was the first to launch its own educational satellite?
Correct answer : 4
Q168. For his space flight achievement, Rakesh Sharma was honoured with.....
Correct answer : 4
Q169. While in space, Rakesh Sharma spoke with which Indian Prime Minister?
Correct answer : 2
Q170. Rakesh Sharma is the first Indian to go into space. In which year?
Correct answer : 1
Q171. What was India's first indigenously developed and launched satellite?
Correct answer : 2
Q172. Launching of which satellite revolutionised the television and telecommunication network of our country?
Correct answer : 2
Q173. In which year India launched its first satellite?
Correct answer : 3
Q174. Indian Space Research Organization is headquartered at................
Correct answer : 4
Q175. In the following number series only one number of wrong. Find out the wrong number: 29 13 25 40 57 79 103 130
Correct answer : 3
Q176. In the following number series only one number of wrong. Find out the wrong number: 850, 600, 550, 500, 475, 462.5, 456.25
Correct answer : 1
Q177. In the question below, there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbeFF0000 1, 2 and 3. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statement. STATEMENTS: Some pens are table. All tables are inks. Some inks are apples. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some apples are pens. (2) Some apples are tables. (3) Some inks are pen.
Correct answer : 3
Q178. In the question below is given four statements, followed by four conclusions numbeFF0000 (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. STATEMENTS: All Chairs are sofas. All sofas are books. All books are nets. All nets are gardens. CONCLUSIONS: (1) Some nets are sofas. (2) Some gardens are books. (3) Some nets are chairs. (4) All books are gardens.
Correct answer : 4
Q179. Study the following information carefully and answer the given question. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. D is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of B. F is fourth to the right of B. C fourth to the right of E who is not an immediate neighbour of B or D. A is not an immediate neighbour of D. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
Correct answer : 2
Q180. Fill the blanks with appropriate pair of words given: "e; Anthony got ..........the bus, but there was no seat vacant ........him."e;
Correct answer : 2
Q181. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5): (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any): The actress made a rare appearance (1) / at the party and was (2) / overheard talking in (3) / her next big project. (4) / No error. (5).
Correct answer : 2
Q182. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word: DETERRENT
Correct answer : 3
Q183. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete: No matter where that prisoner tries to .......... the police will find him sooner or later.
Correct answer : 3
Q184. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (4). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) It was me who was (1) / responsible for (2) / making all the arrangements for the successful completion of his studies. (3) / No error. (4).
Correct answer : 1
Q185. Replace the highlighted part of the sentence appropriately from the options given: Looked over from that point of view his decision is easier to understand.
Correct answer : 2
Q186. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word: CONCEITED
Correct answer : 3
Q187. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (4). There is a Bach's violin concerto (1) / on the radio (2) / at 6 p.m. this evening. (3) / No error. (4)
Correct answer : 3
Q188. According to the 2016 report of UNIDO -- United Nations Industrial Development Organization --, where is India placed in
Industrial production?
Correct answer : 4
Q189. In 2016, the World Bank released a report on ""World Economic Development & Future"" and a list of developing countries. According
to the report, which country's economy is on the fast track of development?
Correct answer : 3
Q190. As of 2016, which country has the highest investment -- FDI -- in India?
Correct answer : 4
Q191. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the .... can transmit data.
Correct answer : 1
Q192. Help Menu is available at which button?
Correct answer : 2
Q193. GCA stands for ...
Correct answer : 1
Q194. Gopher .....
Correct answer : 4
Q195. .........is the most reliable and robust amongst the following though does not have high processing power.
Correct answer : 1
Q196. Pick the correct COBOL reserved words.
Correct answer : 4
Q197. The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a ....
Correct answer : 2
Q198. ......controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a me ......... .........by which users can interact with the computer
Correct answer : 4
Q199. options b and c should be done at the command prompt with argument (i.e. file name)
Correct answer : 4
Q200. The following statements may be arranged in the sequential order: To create a new document in MS word, the steps must be.... 1.Select New 2.In the General tab, Select Blank Document 3.Click on OK 4.Click on the File Menu in the Standard Menu Bar 5.Start typing the data or text 6.After typing the text, click on File Menu and select Save 7.Provide a file name to save the new document and click OK